When we examine the relationship between God’s foreknowledge and His predestining, one might wonder if one precedes the other, and how that impacts metaphysical realities. As part of this line of reasoning, it is important to examine the Scriptures to discover what God foreknew. There are at least six explicit Biblical references to God having prior knowledge: Psalm 139:4, Jeremiah 1:5, Acts 2:23, Romans 8:29, Romans 11:2, and 1 Peter 1:2. Interestingly, there is another passage that speaks of believers also having prior knowledge – 2 Peter 3:17. Examining these gives us insight for understanding the relationship between God’s foreknowledge and His predestining. While I deal with these issues and their metaphysical and theological implications at length in another work,[1] this article introduces the topic by considering exegetical aspects of what God foreknew.
Psalm 139:4
4 Even before there is a word on my tongue, Behold, O Lord, You know it all. [2]
While initially written in Hebrew and using the word yada, the passage is later translated in the Greek LXX as egnos. Two Greek NT words are used to represent knowledge: oida references an understanding or calculation of facts or concepts, while gnosis denotes an experiential and personal kind of knowledge, like that of knowing a person. A verb form of gnosis is used here.
In this passage David affirms God’s personal knowledge of everything.
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? All, or everything. In this context, David recognizes how vast God’s knowledge is and how much he loves God’s thoughts.[3]
Jeremiah 1:5
5 “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, And before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations.” [4]
While initially written in Hebrew and using the word yada, the passage is later translated in the Greek LXX as epistamai. Unlike the other two words used in the Greek NT, the term epistamai is a generic reference to knowledge in general (our word epistemology, referencing the broad discipline of understanding knowledge, comes from this term).
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? Jeremiah himself. We can draw the principle from this passage that God knows people beforehand.
Acts 2:23
23 this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.[5]
Here the word foreknowledge is actually used. This is translated from the Greek prognosei. (The English word prognosis derives from the Greek term), which communicates a personal knowledge beforehand. It is worth noting in this context that both predetermination and foreknowledge are both used, with the predetermined plan being referenced first. It is also worth noting that the “plan” is simply the Greek word boule, which might be better translated will. Jesus was delivered over by the predetermined will and foreknowledge of God. The implication by the word order is that the will came first and then the knowledge (because it had been willed and was now a reality).
We need to exercise caution here in drawing too dogmatic a theological principle – the word order is not definitive, but it is significant. An inference based on word order also follows the logic that the determination comes first, and then the knowledge is secure. Still, we need to be cautious not to anthropomorphize God by assuming of Him human limitations. As the Creator of reality, He has sovereign rights over it, so we cannot judge Him and His actions as being restricted in ways that His creation is restricted.
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? The delivering over of Christ. We understand from this that God foreknows events. We see the same principle at play in the prophetic books, wherein God is revealing truths before they become actuality. This would seemingly also require predetermination and foreknowledge.
Romans 8:29
29 For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren; 30 and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.[6]
Whereas in Acts 2:23 the predetermination is mentioned before the foreknowledge, the opposite is true in Romans 8:29. Both use the same lexical root (gnosis), so they aren’t referencing different kinds of knowledge (as might have been the case if different words were employed). It is worth noting that the predestining is to being conformed to the image of His Son. The object of the foreknowledge is simply the person who will ultimately be conformed to the image of the Son.
Ephesians 1:4-5 adds to this discussion by making it very clear that individual believers are predestined to be adopted as sons, and that they are chosen beforehand to be in Christ. There is no mention of foreknowledge in that context, so the sequence of these two (if there is any) seems unimportant to Paul.
We must exercise caution in assuming cause and effect here, as we see other instances in which phenomena are concurrent and not consecutive (for example, faith and salvation are not in sequence but are concurrent, as in Ephesians 2:8, and belief and eternal life are concurrent present realities in John 6:47). God is not bound by sequence, except where He has limited Himself by His word. But if there is sequence being communicated in Romans 8:29 and Ephesians 1:4-5, it might look like this:
- God predestines to adoption as sons and being in Christ.
- God foreknows the person
- God predestines to conformity to Christ.
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? The person who will ultimately be conformed to Christ.
Romans 11:2
2 God has not rejected His people whom He foreknew. Or do you not know what the Scripture says in the passage about Elijah, how he pleads with God against Israel? [7]
Here the term proegno is used, which is most literally translated as foreknew. Here the object of God’s foreknowledge is the people of Israel. The context explains that God will fulfill His commitments to Israel, as His gifts and callings are irrevocable.[8] Isaiah 48:8-10 is reminiscent of Paul’s writing in Romans 11, as God acknowledges that because He knew Israel would be unfaithful beforehand, He did not destroy them in His wrath, but rather He is refining the nation for His own glory (or the expression of His character).
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? The nation of Israel.
1 Peter 1:2
1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who reside as aliens, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, who are chosen 2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace be yours in the fullest measure. [9]
The NASB translation of “chosen according to the foreknowledge…” seems to present explicitly that the choosing as based on the foreknowledge. However, the Greek word order offers a very different perspective. The Greek kata (according to) does not modify the eklektois (chosen) – eklektois is itself an adjective modifying the noun disaspora (the scattered), thus the scattered are according to the foreknowledge. Either Peter is expressing that it was foreknown that the people would be scattered, or more probably, he is reminding the people that they themselves are foreknown. This would be a very encouraging assertion for people who were undergoing suffering and persecution and might be perhaps wavering in their assurance of God’s effective work in their lives.
What is the object of God’s foreknowledge? “The scattered.”
Conclusion
From these contexts we see God foreknowing:
- All/Everything
- Jeremiah
- The delivering over of Christ to be killed
- The person who will ultimately be conformed to the image of Christ
- The nation of Israel
- The “scattered” believers
From these references we see close relationship between foreknowledge and predestining. While the relationship between foreknowledge and predestination is not explicit in any of these passages, the textual cumulative case is stronger for foreknowledge being based on predeterminations of God’s will than His predeterminations being based on His foreknowledge. However, it is important to note that the Scripture offers no clear answer to the question of sequence, and it is equally possible that these ideas are concurrent, and that their use is simply to emphasize the reliability of God’s affirmations. Whichever is true (sequence or no sequence) it is clear that God is sovereign, as His predestining and foreknowledge provide fixed determinations which are unalterable. It is also clear that humanity bears responsibility for its actions and can justly be held accountable by a sovereign and just God.
[1] Christopher Cone, The Sofa Rule: A Biblical Approach to God’s Sovereignty and Human Responsibility (Exegetica Publishing, 2019).
[2] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), Ps 139:4.
[3] Psalm 139:17.
[4] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), Je 1:5.
[5] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), Ac 2:23.
[6] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), Ro 8:29–30.
[7] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), Ro 11:2.
[8] Romans 11:29.
[9] New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (La Habra, CA: The Lockman Foundation, 1995), 1 Pe 1:1–2.
